Submitted by knowledgeisnone t3_110jpbz in askscience
For example, if say someone pretended to hit their head, but in reality I just subtlety made a bumping noise, would people percieve it as if the noise came from the person who 'hit their head'?
this is a dumb example, but im basically wondering is the audio illusion from overall associations of sounds with the things that make the sounds, or is it with only speech recognition?
synaptome t1_j8af3a8 wrote
It does not. The McGurk effect is a cross modal illusion, which happens when one of your senses “hack” another. Speech is cross modal, hence the illusion, it works very well with anything visual/auditory and in theory it should with other senses (less obvious though). Here is a famous non speech example. In the case of the McGurk, visual information is processed more rapidly, which triggers an oscillatory response from the visual area. The auditory information does the same in auditory cortex. At some point, both are supposed to be integrated into one big coherent audiovisual perception, which is speech. But since the auditory information is lagging, if the visual information is slightly different, it will shift the oscillatory response toward the perception matching the visual information.
Source: I’m a neuroscientist and I worked on the McGurk effect.