Submitted by costigan95 t3_10pjdm4 in askscience
This is a question of risk in good faith. I’m away that myocarditis risk is significantly lower from vaccination than an infection, but does that account for those who have been vaccinated and later contracted Covid? Are they still at lower risk than the unvaccinated who contracted Covid?
Just curious about the science behind this and how risk is calculated.
[deleted] t1_j6mm097 wrote
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