Recent comments in /f/explainlikeimfive

the1ine t1_j6ofqij wrote

Yes, because language has evolved (often in parallel) and is memetic. The whole thing is one big game of telephone. I believe this is why Stephen Wolfram is pushing to create a new form of language similar to maths that can be used to universally communicate anything. Because everything else is subject to history and context.

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czbz t1_j6oflz7 wrote

Yes - but in all of those cases you'd subtract the costs of the input to the business, so you only count the money that goes to the companies own staff & owners as its productivity.

E.g. to estimate how much value the therapist produces you'd add up the feels their clients pay but then you'd subtract what they pay for room rent, what they pay to their superviser etc. For the bus company you'd subtract their cost of buying or renting busses etc ect. If a business is paying more for its inputs than it takes in revenues then its productivity would be negative.

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Ilookouttrainwindow t1_j6oe9sg wrote

CPU can do everything. It's one really smart and hard working guy just going off of endless instructions.

GPU is a collection of smart fast hard working guys all given portions of specific instructions and are told to start working at the same time.

Another analogy - CPU is me remodeling bathroom step by step in an apartment building. When done, I move to next one.

GPU is a bunch of guys all assigned small tasks all located in designated bathrooms in the apartment building.

Which one is overall faster?

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Flair_Helper t1_j6ocm9j wrote

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DiamondIceNS t1_j6oc7ja wrote

As others have stated, if the exam has its answers distributed truly randomly (or at least sufficiently randomly, i.e. by a computer), and if all of the answers had their choice selection decided independently, then your guesses will not matter at all. You gain no statistical advantage by any strategy. You are simply rolling an X-sided die Y number of times, where X is how many choices each question has and Y is how many questions the exam has.

The adage that you should select the same letter multiple times in a row to get an edge stems from two things, one of which is completely unrelated (and may not apply) and the other only holds if the assumptions we made aren't true.

The first is about speed. If you mark every question with something, you are statistically expected to get at least a score of 1/X on all those questions you marked. So if you anticipate the possibility that you might not even finish your exam, if you have them all pre-marked (switching answers to the correct ones as you read your way through the exam for real), then you might get some extra scoring for your guesses on questions you may have otherwise marked blank. This only works, of course, if the exam you are taking doesn't penalize incorrect answers. An exam that marks non-answers and wrong answers the same benefits from guesses; an exam that subtracts points for wrong answers and does nothing for non-answers punishes guesses.

The second is that there is some evidence that in multiple-choice exams with answer keys arranged by humans one letter is statistically more likely to be the answer for any given question. In the common four-choice arrangement with A, B, C, and D, that letter tends to be C. So, provided your exam was written by a human, and the exam doesn't penalize guessing, answering all questions with C has a statistical advantage over random guessing.

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Coomb t1_j6ob9pr wrote

In the specific case of Wiesel, the simplest answer is that the Hungarian Jews weren't being murdered en masse (at least while they were still in Hungary) until very late in the war. It is actually true in general that the mass murder of European Jews by the Nazis didn't really begin until the middle of 1941.

As you point out, Moishe is deported to Poland in 1941 and barely escapes the mass murder being perpetrated against the Jews there. But when he returns to Hungary to warn the rest of the Jewish community there, he is ignored or not taken as credible. The specific reason for this is going to be different from person to person who didn't believe him, but it basically just comes down to denial. That is, although the Germans had spent years demonizing Jewish people, before roughly mid 1941, they actually weren't murdering them on a large scale. Of course the Jews were rounded up into ghettos and concentration camps, but those weren't actually designed or operated with the intent to kill everyone there. It was only after the invasion of the Soviet Union, and later the Wannsee conference, that the Nazis decided to kill as many Jews as they could, not only in the territory they seized from Poland and the Soviet Union, but also in Western and Central Europe.

In that historical context, Moishe's warning is a very early sign of what is about to happen. Unfortunately, in many disasters, the very earliest warnings aren't taken seriously. It is almost axiomatic that any power waging war on another will have at least isolated incidents of war crimes. It is therefore possible, in 1941, to write off even accounts as horrible as Moishe's as isolated incidents which were abominable but which wouldn't have indicated that the German policy was now to murder all Jews.

And remember, until late in the war (1944), Hungary, which is where Wiesel lived, wasn't occupied by the Nazis, and the Hungarian government didn't deport Jews to concentration or extermination camps in Germany and elsewhere. Because Hungary was a German ally, it might have been tempting, even after hearing about the monstrosities occurring Poland and Russia and even in the rest of Europe, to believe that as a Jew in Hungary, you would be safe from Nazi persecution. After all, why would the Nazis invade their own ally?

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ToBeSimpleAgain t1_j6oaewr wrote

The literally replacing figuratively is supposed to denote the hyperbolic nature of what is being said, no?

Like: omg, I'm literally ded.

Everyone knows that that it is impossible, but we saying to give emphasis to what is being said.

So, it's really just a hyperbolic device. Language is funny like that, but I can't see how it's wrong since I think the absurdity is part of the intent of use.

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Flair_Helper t1_j6oa6ft wrote

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DiamondIceNS t1_j6o9dyh wrote

DNA is the master copy. In most circumstances you only want one copy of it sitting around at any given time. It has developed to become sturdy and resilient to damage, and it is always under constant repair and error correction. It is also very long, and has the ability to be spun up into condensed packages for deep storage when not in use.

RNA is basically just a photocopy of DNA. Stuff all around the cell needs to use the DNA as instructions to do their tasks, but not everything can be swarming around the DNA reading it all at once. Instead, special proteins periodically "scan" the DNA and "photocopy" it to RNA. RNA is built similarly to DNA, but it is very short, and its structure makes it much more temporary. It lasts just long enough to leave the place where the DNA is stored, make it out to something that will read its bite-sized instruction, and then it disintegrates back into pieces that can be recycled to make new strands of RNA.

You can think of it like having one master copy of a very fancy and expensive book, that everyone in a company needs to read from from time to time. But instead of letting everyone mass around the book every time they need something, you have some employees occasionally flip to certain pages and photocopy them, and they send out photocopies to everyone. These photocopies are read a few times, thrown away, and then the paper is recycled.

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