Recent comments in /f/explainlikeimfive

Chii t1_jabpau4 wrote

Imputed means access without having to pay real cash for.

it is basically "virtual" income (not virtual as in computer/internet, but "as if" real). By being able to book via someone working at the airport, you gained an advantage, which is valued at $55 (somehow, not sure how they calculate it...).

Often, it is considered that owning your own place of living as a form of imputed rental income, because you got access to living in a property without having to pay the equivalent rent to someone.

Edit: from my understanding, imputed income should not be taxed, but different countries treat this differently.

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ClockworkLexivore t1_jabpagc wrote

Imputed income is non-wage, non-salary stuff you get as part of your job - benefits you don't pay for, but which still has a price tag attached. You get it for "free" but you still have to pay taxes on its value as if you'd made the money. The usual examples are use of a company car, or a membership to the place you work (gyms, spas, etc.).

So your friend may have a work benefit where they can give out a free ticket. They don't have to pay $55 for it, but they'll have to pay taxes as if they got $55 extra in their paycheck.

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Trewarin t1_jabov1t wrote

There is also a lot of acid production during the phases where bacterial like organisms convert agricultural ammonia into nitrites, and then nitrates, especially if oxygenation of the waterway is low or temps high. The pH swing also kills fish rapidly

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beardyramen t1_jabotel wrote

https://www.google.com/amp/s/www.forbes.com/sites/stevensavage/2022/10/12/a-company-offers-an-alternative-to-food-waste-at-the-grocery-store-level/amp/ you can check Forbes for some data.

If you buy an apple for 1 and sell it for 5, you can easily afford wasting 1 apple in 3, if it nets you more sales.

Also you can afford to loose something in the fruit department, if you compensate with increased sales on a high-end product.

Ofc the small shop run by Roberto close to my parents' cannot afford this mindset, but big chains can.

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burman07 OP t1_jabnwam wrote

so I’m understanding the difference between the calls and puts, but is there no real, simple way to know how much money you’re getting out of the calls/puts?

Also, follow-up question, if the expiry date comes and the call/put was correct, does it do the same kind of math as it would if you had cashed out early?

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JaggedMetalOs t1_jabnvfm wrote

It can, but some now common graphical special effects and lighting techniques don't work because they need to know which pixel belongs to exactly which object on screen, while that gray pixel is part of both the black and the white object.

It's kind of complex, but generally thought the overall look with those effects without antialiasing is better than without the effects but with antialiasing.

There are workarounds that give something similar to real antialiasing that work with those effects, or if you have lots of GPU power but a low res monitor you can do what OP asks and Renee a larger screen that you realize down.

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ratherbealurker t1_jabnli0 wrote

If you want to remember the difference when buying a call or put, just remember:

A call is the option to pick up the phone and order the stock (buy) at the strike price.

A put is the option to put the stock into the market (sell) at the strike price.

Think it’ll go up, use a call. Think it’ll go down, use a put.

Gets more complicated in reality and you can also sell contracts.

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JaggedMetalOs t1_jabnco7 wrote

Mip-mapping is slightly different - it's automatically using smaller versions of textures for far away objects, which speeds up rendering and makes the distant textures look better as the GPU isn't good at scaling textures down more than 2x.

What OP is talking about is better described as antialiasing.

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1

EquivalentCommon5 t1_jabn47x wrote

This is why it’s a great thing to have buffers for waterways, tiered gardens that funnel water runoff to be used again and not get into waterways. Other things that can help keep runoff out of waterways! But if the US can manage that, we still have animal fecal runoff (which can be mitigated but isn’t as much as should be), company pollution- which they can pay for off sets. Off sets aren’t available to farmers iirc, could be wrong! We need to supplement farmers not so many companies!!! Farmers feed us, companies- ugh, some ‘feed’ us but big corporations get major breaks that local farmers don’t! Wish people started to really look at what makes the US great. Unfortunately, they won’t! Liberals don’t see where their food comes from, conservatives don’t see how great diversity helps us, neither side on the outskirts seem to realize that politicians are about themselves. Politicians get away with bribes, stock fraud (buying knowing more than the public, pretty much corruption though there are other terms, insider trading comes to mind), oh not paying back loans that were for small business to stay afloat during the pandemic, or they get different health care, salaries and pensions that don’t make sense… they retire as millionaires. Sorry went off on a tangent I shouldn’t have. Summary from this- politicians on every side have a 70% chance of being corrupt in someway!

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explainlikeimfive-ModTeam t1_jabn3zo wrote

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1

icelandichorsey t1_jabmyvt wrote

Fair enough, thanks

Your original comment sounded like taking our current world (or even the world of the last 500 years) for granted. A world where enough people have the time to sit around and measure things like this and make accurate enough conclusions and then also be able to influence the hierarchy enough to make it into a "calendar".

Also they would have had to stay in one place rather than migrate long enough, again, we're talking this for granted. That's no small thing although I didn't consider organised religion who of course tick all of these boxes and have been around for thousands of years.

Anyway, your subsequent response clarified that you weren't thinking like this. Thanks

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spicymato t1_jabmsjj wrote

>That's still just the odds of rolling 3 in a row.

Technically yes, but also technically no. It's similar to saying (2*2) is the same as 4. They are equivalent, but also technically different. P(3 6s) is equivalent to P(6 6s given 3 6s), but the latter has information about prior events that the former doesn't; it also is describing a different set of events.

You can only ignore the earlier rolls because each roll is independent of the rest. If the event in question is not fully independent, then it will alter the probability in a way that doesn't let you simply eliminate the prior events. This is what I meant by the dice example being trivial; because they're independent, calculating the future probability is trivial, regardless of the given priors.

This is literally Bayes' theorem. P(A|B) = (P(B|A)*P(A))/P(B). In words, the probability of A given B is equal to the probability of B given A times the independent probability of A all over the independent probability of B. If you plug in the dice example:

  • P(3 6s given 6 6s) = 1;
  • P(6 6s) = (1/6)^6;
  • P(3 6s) = (1/6)^3;
  • Therefore: 1(1/6)^6 /(1/6)^3 = (1/6)^(6-3) = (1/6)^3

Again, trivial, but shows that prior events can be used in the calculations of future events (even if they are independent and don't actually impact the result).

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