Recent comments in /f/explainlikeimfive
MoogTheDuck t1_jd9hfu5 wrote
Reply to comment by CinnamonSniffer in ELI5: Why does Google offer all these free services like Google Docs, Sheets, Drive, Sites, Forms, etc. without any ads on them? How does Google benefit from this and why do they invest so much in creating and maintaining them? by Elena_Edie
The question was 'what's metadata?'
Buttleston t1_jd9h89a wrote
Reply to ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
OK so, the keys on a piano are black or white, right? The white ones are A B C D E F G. The black ones are either sharp or flat, let's not worry about why for a second and just say the black keys are Ab Bb Db Eb and Gb.
If a song is in the key of C, then, very simplistically, almost all the notes and chord are *only* comprised of the white keys. That is, a "key" is 7 out of the available 11 notes. Those notes sort of "sound good" together and most western music is oriented around a key.
Different keys are different note, but the 7 notes in that key have the same relationship as in the key of C, just shifted up or down.
[deleted] t1_jd9gu83 wrote
Reply to comment by Mammoth-Mud-9609 in ELI5 Why are so many Indian people deformed? by Acheron98
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Throwaway08080909070 t1_jd9edl8 wrote
Reply to comment by KingSmizzy in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Rachel is the worst for sure. Literally the worst.
big_sugi t1_jd9e810 wrote
Reply to comment by Throwaway08080909070 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
But did you ever hear the name of Darth Plagueis the Wise?
KingSmizzy t1_jd9e7zl wrote
Reply to comment by Throwaway08080909070 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Trash tier story in what could have been an amazing setting. I hate Rachel
Lraejones t1_jd9amgc wrote
Reply to comment by Gstamsharp in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Can confirm, I communicate via email with people from all over the world for work and typically use first/given name in the email salutation. Japanese names are easy to recognize first and last, as are the more common Korean last names like Park or Kim. Vietnamese on the other hand is often tough for me to discern first name. There's no typical convention by country in terms of name order in email addresses. It seems to be based on whether the company is more traditional/formal or not.
AntarcticaLTE t1_jd99bvs wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
I'd also guess a lot of people have no clue which part of a korean name is the first name or last name
Throwaway08080909070 t1_jd96tpd wrote
Reply to comment by SaintUlvemann in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
But do you know the name 25th Baam?
rbv201 OP t1_jd96ih3 wrote
Reply to comment by Lirdon in ELI5: have “years” been constant across time? Like 3.5 billion years. by rbv201
Thanks for the answer! The idea of the atom frequency as a constant (the same hourglass back then as now) is very interesting. Thanks again!
gnalon t1_jd94z78 wrote
Reply to comment by 4B1T in ELI5 Why are so many Indian people deformed? by Acheron98
Also it is the most populous country on Earth, so obviously for any type of person you can imagine, a lot of them will be from India.
Any-Growth8158 t1_jd93xxv wrote
I'm assuming you are talking about the orbital period of the Earth? Years do change as we change definitions of time, although these are small.
The Earth is actually moving very slowly away from the Sun, so years are getting a little longer, although the difference is pretty difficult to measure.
The Sun pushes the Earth away due to the solar wind, but this actually has very little effect. More important is the mass loss by the Sun via the solar wind (and fusion reactions). The Sun loses a mass of about 8 Earths per year. One site I saw said this has resulted in a net loss in velocity of 22 m/s over the life of the solar system--fairly insignificant to the current 29.78 km/s
If you go back far enough, then the Earth was involved in major collisions. These could have had great effect on the orbital period by (mostly) adding large amounts of mass.
Gstamsharp t1_jd93td1 wrote
Reply to comment by imminentmailing463 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
That last bit sounds very plausible. Since the end of WWII we've had a very close relationship with Japan with a ton of cultural exchange. Americans are just more familiar with both Japanese naming customs and the sound of which names are given vs familial.
SaintUlvemann t1_jd93bf9 wrote
Reply to comment by Dunlaing in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
This is the real answer. I know the name "Shinzo Abe" and I know the name "Ban Ki-Moon" but I could not have told you until a few seconds ago when I looked it up which of either is the family name and which is the personal name. Wiki has an overview of Japan's Meiji-era decision to swap name orders in contexts using Western languages.
[deleted] t1_jd91qlp wrote
Reply to comment by imminentmailing463 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
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StupidLemonEater t1_jd91c4i wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
It's actually the Japanese who do this, not English speakers.
During a period of Japanese history called the Meiji era, the country was rapidly industrialized and modernized on the model of the contemporary great powers of Europe. This included adopting not only Western industry but also Western-style laws, military organization, education, clothing, architecture, art, music, etc. In those days, to achieve the success of the West it was believed that a country's entire society must emulate the West, and Japan was not the only country to do so (consider Turkey, where in 1928 the entire writing system was changed in order to be more European).
As one element of this "Europeanization" whenever writing or speaking European languages, including English, the Japanese would reverse their own names to the more European family-name-last order instead of the typically Asian family-name-first, and this continued to be the norm into the 20th and 21st centuries.
For China and Korea, if they did experience modernization in the European image, it was not to the same extreme of this name-order code-switching and thus never became the norm in those countries. In the last few years there have been moves in Japan to return to the traditional name order in Western languages, e.g. the English-language website for the Office of the Prime Minister shows Fumio Kishida's name family-name-first (and in caps, for added clarification), but English-language publications have been slow to switch.
Dunlaing t1_jd8zowu wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Starting in the late Nineteenth century, Japan adopted the western custom of putting the given name first and family name last when writing/saying their names in English.
It’s only in the last few years that a movement has started to change it so that the order will match between Japanese and English.
Kzickas t1_jd8z12n wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
I'd expect that a big part of it is when their names were introduced to western audiences. I'd expect that generally the willingness to not alter the names much from their original form has probably increased over the last few decades.
imminentmailing463 t1_jd8xdzq wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Korean names often do get swapped. The footballer Park Ji-Sung was very often referred to as Ji-Sung Park. Same is true of several other Korean footballers. Son Heung-Min is a current example. Often talked about as if Son is his given name, or referred to as Heung-Min Son.
Also, possibly part of that reason Korean names may get switched less is because we aren't even aware of the family/given name order. To use your example, I'd imagine plenty of English speakers think 'Bong' is his given name and 'Joon-ho' his family name.
Whereas I think we have a little more cultural familiarity with japanese names, so we recognise certain names as family and certain ones as given names, and switch them to be the order we recognise.
Target880 t1_jd7e29x wrote
Reply to comment by Perfect-Editor-5008 in ELI5: have “years” been constant across time? Like 3.5 billion years. by rbv201
>We have named a year to be the time it takes for 1 orbit of the sun.
That is not the case. The year we base our calendar on is the one cycle in the season on earth. You can pick the time between March Equinox and next March Equinox. This is a tropical year
It is it and the average solar day we try to make a calendar from. because there is not an integer fraction between the you need to add leap years
​
An obit around the sun relative to a star far away is a sidereal year. It differs from the tropical year by around 20 minutes. It adds up to around 1 day of change in 72 years so not a lot but very relevant if you, for example, do celestial navigation.
Over a long time it has a larger effect, Compare the day that typically zodiac and when the sun really is in the sky, there is a difference of around 20 days because of the 20 minutes difference over more than millennia.
Haytham__ t1_jd6wwmr wrote
Reply to comment by bearrryallen in ELI5 Why are so many Indian people deformed? by Acheron98
In simple terms. Inbreeding.
urzu_seven t1_jd6tm8j wrote
Reply to comment by Perfect-Editor-5008 in ELI5: have “years” been constant across time? Like 3.5 billion years. by rbv201
Time is not a human construct. Time exists whether we do or not. The labels we choose are constructs, but the underlying passage of time still occurs, whatever we label it.
Further some things, such as a year, are defined by external factors, namely the Earths orbit around the Sun. This does not change with the existence of humans. It is a known quantity. The orbital periods of other planets are indeed different, but thats not what is referred to by "a year", which is why you have to qualify in circumstances where thats what you want to talk about.
urzu_seven t1_jd6tds4 wrote
Yes and no.
Yes (mostly) - the time, in absolute terms that the earth takes to complete one lap around the sun has been close to the same. Orbital period is determined by an objects distance from the sun. The Earths average distance from the sun has been basically the same since its formation, meaning its orbital period has been the same.
No - We typically measure years in number of days (roughly 365.25 right now) it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit. While the overall length of orbit in say, seconds has not changed, the number of days it takes HAS because the Earths rotation is slowing down. Billions of years ago it probably took less than 20 hours for the Earth to complete one rotation, aka one day. So the number of "days" in the year was greater, as each day was shorter.
So in raw time, yes, its basically the same. In terms of how many "days" it took? No, it used to be longer.
aqhgfhsypytnpaiazh t1_jd6qi18 wrote
Reply to comment by bearrryallen in ELI5 Why are so many Indian people deformed? by Acheron98
If you read it as "universality of marriage" is the risk factor, a lack of it would be the risk in this case.
Jon_Jraper t1_jd9hp8g wrote
Reply to ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
So, the "Do Re Mi" is a great launch for an example of a scale and key. As you step through it singing, each sound is a slightly and particularly higher note than the last right? If you do it again, but sing the first Do at a different starting note (lower or higher, doesn't matter) you'll step through the rest of that scale on the same pattern of rising notes. So here, you're singing the scale in a different key. Same sounds, same pattern, but different "base" note.
Songs are all in a key, that is rooted in a base note and a particular pattern. Another artist might play the same song in a different key for a stylistic reason or simply a preference. Like the cover versions of Landslide or Jolene.
An easy place to hear a key change is in a lot of older country songs, like Good Hearted Woman. That song is in one key for most of it and then transposes up a bit to a new key. They play the same pattern, but base it off a different key.