Recent comments in /f/explainlikeimfive
Flair_Helper t1_jd9xkne wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
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dreamwarrior222 t1_jd9wsw6 wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
We say the name how it is presented to us. It is the Koreans who choose to go by their last names first. The Vietnamese, on the other hand typically give us first middle last, like Ke Huy Quan, who's name in Vietnamese is Quan Ke Huy. Most Koreans I went to school with used their last name as a first name. That's apparently how they filled out their paperwork. Idk why. When Chan Ho Park came to the US to pitch in MLB, he said he wanted to be called Chan Ho Park, not Park Chan Ho. It was confusing.
a_frayn t1_jd9wqmh wrote
Reply to comment by fodi666 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Sorry. Time travel gets confusing.
fodi666 t1_jd9wm53 wrote
Reply to comment by a_frayn in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Was? It will happen in the 2300s
DroneOfDoom t1_jd9w3vq wrote
Reply to comment by AntarcticaLTE in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
You’d think that the fact that the two most well known korean persons are father and son would indicate that the family name goes first.
Exist50 t1_jd9vzdx wrote
Reply to comment by Gstamsharp in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
> Americans are just more familiar with both Japanese naming customs and the sound of which names are given vs familial.
Tbh, I don't think it's common knowledge for Americans either. Not rare knowledge, perhaps, but I'd be surprised if that was true for the majority.
Hayaguaenelvaso t1_jd9vq6s wrote
Reply to comment by AntarcticaLTE in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Korrekto. We are more exposed to Japanese names, thanks to them being the number one pop culture exporter in the world
HalcyonDreams36 t1_jd9uawb wrote
Reply to comment by StupidLemonEater in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
OP, another short way to think of it is: I know your name the way you told it to me.
a_frayn t1_jd9szsx wrote
Reply to ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
It was also pretty common for Bajorans too. Humans often would assume their given name was their family name. It wasn’t until Ensign Ro corrected Captain Picard that it became more common to use their names correctly.
Waterknight94 t1_jd9sq3w wrote
Reply to comment by Gstamsharp in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
I think I have heard of some Nguyen Nguyen situations.
FriendlyPyre t1_jd9r8d8 wrote
Reply to comment by StupidLemonEater in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
>For China and Korea, if they did experience modernization in the European image, it was not to the same extreme of this name-order code-switching and thus never became the norm in those countries. In the last few years there have been moves in Japan to return to the traditional name order in Western languages, e.g. the
Side note, in Singapore and Malaysia (both ex-colonies of the UK with relatively extensive Christianisation & English Educated Elite), Chinese names are arranged as such in government records where applicable:
<English first name> <Family name> <Transcribed Chinese first name>
or
<Family name> <Transcribed Chinese first name> , <English first name>
Also note that it's <Transcribed Chinese first name> due to the mix of dialects and the fact that the registrar at the time did not have a standardised manner of transcribing names to English. Even the same family name of the same dialect could be transcribed differently; example, Ku vs Koo vs Khoo even though they hold the same character and pronunciation.
​
Let's take the example of Lee Kuan Yew the founding father of the current government of Singapore. He was born Harry Lee Kuan Yew; Following the convention of <English F.n> <Family n> <Tr. Chinese F.n>. (Note that he did drop the use of his English first name at some point during his study years in the UK)
TanaDragon t1_jd9r7gw wrote
Reply to comment by jdl_uk in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Good example because I don’t think they ever had that problem with Yuki Tsunoda. But then again F1 is a lot more familiar with Japan than China.
banngbanng t1_jd9qcek wrote
Reply to comment by AntarcticaLTE in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
I know I never thought about Bong Joon-Ho being family name-given name until reading this thread lol
cyklone117 t1_jd9pshb wrote
Reply to comment by Kzickas in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
It's still inconsistent. Take MLB phenom (and MVP of the 2023 World Baseball Classic) Shohei Ohtani for example. The family name is Ohtani, but in the MLB his name is westernized. As is every other Japanese (and Korean) player signed to the MLB.
[deleted] t1_jd9p8yl wrote
Any-Growth8158 t1_jd9o6sw wrote
Reply to comment by Buttleston in ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
Not only does the key of C use primarily certain notes, it also places emphasis on a subset of those notes. Musical phrases (a sequence of notes that form a musical "sentence") will tend to start or end with one of the main notes--especially the root of the key (it's name).
Of course much of the best music ignores many of the rules, but you have to know when to do so to make them sound good usually...
J3lackJ3ird0501 t1_jd9n5ib wrote
Reply to comment by KingSmizzy in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
What do you mean trash tier story? ToG is great
CinnamonSniffer t1_jd9mqcm wrote
Reply to comment by MoogTheDuck in ELI5: Why does Google offer all these free services like Google Docs, Sheets, Drive, Sites, Forms, etc. without any ads on them? How does Google benefit from this and why do they invest so much in creating and maintaining them? by Elena_Edie
My question is ‘why no bitches?’
reery7 t1_jd9mgr6 wrote
Reply to ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
Phew where to start…
I like your post, but there are multiple questions and a lot to talk about, however I‘ll address only the main one: What’s a key?
When you hear one frequency, like 440 Hz, your brain will see this tone as the key. Add a different frequency (another white button on the piano) and go back to the 440 Hz, your brain will like it. What your brain also does is comparing ratios to whatever it hears. The simpler the ratio the more you‘ll like it. 2:1 or 3:2 are very nice.
I‘m not sure if the brain is prewired to anticipate tones with simple ratios or if it is a learned skill. Ultimately your brain likes it if you go back to the first tone or the simple ratios of it and everything in between is the skill of a songwriter to provide you with a nice journey.
Every simple ratio note derived from the initial frequency belongs to an extent to the key of this initial frequency. You will not like random frequencies mixed with the small ratio ones.
If you wait a few seconds after the initial note you can select a random frequency and this will then be ne next new key without bothering you. But play them together or in short succession and you won’t like it.
I‘ve jumped over a lot stuff here and it‘s hard to explain music theory without sound, so here is a video with a detailed and visual description of this topic: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mdEcLQ_RQPY&list=PL618khw0A-t5A7TyZmxAux_v_C3O7rO2l
Brover_Cleveland t1_jd9kejs wrote
Reply to ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
>Are songs not just "buttons" pressed in a certain order with certain delays (and pedals and whatnot)?
The rest goes into some more delicate theory points but this is something that's easy to address. Music is not just a series of instructions that players repeat like machines. Sheet music leaves out a lot of details because it would make it unreadable to include everything and because it is expected that players will add their own interpretation. How loud or soft something is played is a good example, a composer may specifically put in some places where they feel the dynamics need to be a certain way but players can add their style elsewhere or even ignore the composer completely.
If you want to go down a rabbit hole look up The Firebird Suite Finale on youtube. There are videos of the composer, Stravinsky conducting it, along with many of others throughout the years. You could argue that Stravinsky's version is the correct version but even between different videos of him you can hear changes and I would argue they aren't even the best sounding versions.
And then of course once you get into jazz and more out there genres players start improvising. In jazz you'll often get a sheet that has a quick melody to play at the beginning and the end, with the majority of the performance expected to be improvised based on the chords given. And even those chords will often be modified by musicians because they can.
letao12 t1_jd9izsx wrote
Reply to ELI5: How can songs be in a certain key? (And a few more questions about music) by Glum-Airport-4701
You are right that songs are buttons pressed in a certain order. However in the vast vast majority of cases, a song will not use all possible buttons on the piano. It will instead use a specific selection of buttons. This selection is what defines the key of the song.
An analogy with English would be with usage of letters. If you write text with only words that start with F, or text with only words that don't contain E, etc., you can create many different "flavors" of text that will feel different. This is similar to what's happening when a song uses a specific selection of notes for its key.
This video covers a lot of the basics, you might find it helpful: https://youtu.be/28ipYr_aKb8
jdl_uk t1_jd9iwma wrote
Reply to comment by imminentmailing463 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Zhou Guanyu (Chinese driver) had problems when he first joined F1 as nobody knew how to say his name properly and the software that generated the graphics for TV always did it wrong (it treated "Zhou" as his given name).
Took a while for them to sort that out
Lraejones t1_jd9iir1 wrote
Reply to comment by Gstamsharp in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
Very true!
Gstamsharp t1_jd9ie9a wrote
Reply to comment by Lraejones in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
>Vietnamese on the other hand
Oh, that's easy. It's whichever name isn't Nguyen.
An exaggeration, of course, but it is true a whopping 40% of the time.
[deleted] t1_jd9yd15 wrote
Reply to comment by fodi666 in ELI5: Why do English speakers switch Japanese names to have the family name last, but not Korean names? by JorWat
[deleted]