Recent comments in /f/history

ptahonas t1_j4f7ss8 wrote

>People who say that ERE diverged culturally from WRE are mistaken

They definitely aren't.

The ERE diverged from itself over a thousand years. Look at how many distinct phases fit into their culture. Heck, just look at...say... 400-800 ad.

Just like the West did from itself in a "how it started" "how it ended" fashion.

Both of those two entities diverged hugely over their life.

If you want to call them different names that's fine, if you want to call them the same, that's fine.

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yesilovethis t1_j4f7hbi wrote

During WW2 when Army officers used to stay inside underground bunkers, did they also had toilets underground, or they did the numbers outside in wild or separate toilet? If the toilet / washrooms were also underground then how did the plumbing worked? How did they get rid of 'wastes'?

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darthnick7 t1_j4f5q09 wrote

It’s not a useful term because it completely ignores the obviously prominent Roman aspects of the empire.

When I first encountered the term “Byzantine Empire” when I was younger, I had no idea what it was. It took me a surprisingly long time to recognise that it was at all connected to the Roman Empire. It’s unnecessarily confusing for laypeople (especially kids), imo, especially when there’s better terms to use.

I prefer to use “Eastern Roman”, as it places emphasis on the Roman characteristics of the empire while also distinguishing it some from “THE Roman Empire”.

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Original-Yak-679 t1_j4eunqe wrote

Thing about it is, even though they were speaking Greek by the 7th century, they kept many of the old Roman institutions, and continued to think of themselves as Romans. Its the "Western View of Civilization" that chooses to ignore those facts in favor of seeing Byzantium as an "alien" monarchy. This is the same "Western" civilization that in 1204 sacked Constantinople just because a) they weren't Catholic, and b) they were the wealthiest state in Europe....then made half-hearted efforts to save them from the Ottoman Turks.

The West choosing to reduce the actual Roman Empire i.e: Byzantium to a mere Greek kingdom was the result of a conflict over which state could actually claim the mantle of Roman (Holy Roman or Byzantine). Holy Roman Emperors, despite being elevated from mere Frankish and Saxon kings by the popes, were only borrowing the name of Roman because the old Roman Empire was still fresh in the memories of many in the old western empire, particularly in the Frankish period. But because any actual Roman administration in the lands of Germania was confined to the extreme south and southwest of the region, they only had the influence of Rome to build on. Byzantium by comparison had all the legal, political, military and economic institutions from the former Roman Empire and an unbroken tradition of dynastic rule which had started with Caesar Augustus (Octavian) and continued even past the point in 476 when the last Western emperor, Romulus Augustulus, was overthrown by a barbarian general.

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gregorydgraham t1_j4erc71 wrote

150 years ago, New Zealand was British and “even after the creation of a New Zealand citizenship in 1948, New Zealand citizens also remained British subjects. The description ‘British subject’ did not appear on passports printed from 1974, and New Zealand citizens ceased legally to be British subjects on 1 January 1983.”

Breaching a condition of the contract would make the sale void and can be enforced by a court.

Limitations imposed on the initial transaction do carry over to third parties. For instance a factory consented by limiting the pollution emitted, can NOT emit more pollution just by being sold to a third party.

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Mrs_Krandall t1_j4eollv wrote

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DarthDannyBoy t1_j4ejdmp wrote

This is very common amongst the art/artifact/etc trade. It's because they aren't white and are looked down upon. It's everywhere. It's disgusting and a large majority of museums and similar institutes are guilty of it and and they act like pretentious assholes about it.

Look at the British and the Smithsonian. Some of the worth for it.

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SacredEmuNZ t1_j4egz5a wrote

A verbal request about a gift 150 years ago in another country isn't a legally binding contract.

Also selling a gift to someone else doesn't mean the new owners then have to then give it to the original owners based on a request, or that it needs to be confiscated from the descendants of the receivers of the gift as they go to sell it. It's just a ridiculous concept with so many elements that stretch logic.

The whole premise of giving it back should simply be it's a nice thing to do, any kind of discussion of legality is nonsense.

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SacredEmuNZ t1_j4egs2e wrote

Yeah but once someone else has it they are not privy to that condition.

If you brought a heritage house from someone whose grandfather was gifted it on the verbal request it stays in the family, is it your duty as the purchaser to take the financial hit and pass it on to the gifters ancestors, having not known these conditions beforehand?

I get it's a nice thing to do but there's zero legal obligation in either UK or NZ law, or any law in any country that I am aware of.

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Islanduniverse t1_j4eg32r wrote

Thanks! The less academic ones are much more accessible, in more ways than one, so I appreciate it.

To be honest, I wasn’t even thinking about the JSTOR one being behind a paywall, cause I was signed into my work email and I teach at a college, so it just let me in, hahah. So yeah, thank you!

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