Recent comments in /f/history

beach_boy91 t1_itp199r wrote

In a swedish article i read yesterday, it's said that it lies in a military area, which are forbidden to dive in. They gotta have special authority to dive there and they said that maybe they'll take a look at it towards spring to 3d scan the entire thing but they didn't think they would raise the ship and just let it be. It has survived there since 1659 and is still mostly intact. It will be able to lie at the bottom for a lot longer without the need of raising it and requier constant maintaining

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MeatballDom OP t1_itorinu wrote

Surprised to not pick that up myself. Was expecting æblet but then told myself æ wouldn't be used in Swedish and never continued the thought to what should be used. But I guess I assumed the authors would have already done that work.

Edit: Would the umlaut have been used in the 17th century? Vowel shift perhaps?

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Clio90808 t1_itoqoid wrote

I turned to the dark side eventually and got an MBA...worked in research on financial markets...I got to do some financial/economic history along the way. Studying history taught me so much: how to do research; how to analyze; how to create an argument and support/defend it; how to write a paper...I used all that in my career. Also if you work internationally, knowing their history can be a big plus.

For a successful career outside of history after majoring in it, it certainly helps to have graduate training in whatever non-history career path you choose. If you like to teach, then history may be a good path on its own. My problem was that I didn't enjoy teaching that much and you need to love it to make it through, to make history your life work.

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Fofolito t1_itoisjy wrote

Cool.

From the article, after Vasa sank three ships were ordered from the same shipwright to similar designs. They were the Crown, Sceptre, and this one, Applet (Apple). Two of these ships served in war and this one was sunk on purpose, upon decommissioning, likely as a submerged spike-strip to foul unawares attackers.

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jezreelite t1_itnshir wrote

It's probably has something to do with the fact that the title of Duke of Norfolk was revoked after Thomas Howard, 4th Duke of Norfolk, was executed for treason in 1572.

The title would not be restored until 1660 when it was regranted to Thomas Howard, 5th Duke of Norfolk, a descendant of the fourth duke's younger son, Thomas Howard, 1st Earl of Suffolk.

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TheRichTurner t1_itnp23z wrote

I found a map online, dated from 1583, which shows the area of Norfolk where I live (Guiltcross) as part of Suffolk. All maps from before and after this date have the area as part of S. Norfolk.

The map was an official document commissioned by Lord Burleigh on behalf of Elizabeth I.

I know that Elizabeth I and Mary Tudor both lived at different times in Kenninghall Place (shown on the map as "Keanygale") which was the seat of the Duke of Norfolk, and I wonder if that might be something to do with it.

Does anyone have an idea why a part of Norfolk would briefly become a part of Suffolk in the late 16th century?

1583 map of South Norfolk

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