Recent comments in /f/philosophy

Micheal42 t1_jdjonv1 wrote

This for sure. Also you can use more of the scientific method than might occur in many situations too, for example you can record events and what you witness even when you can't control or perfectly describe what's happening. That's definitely not comparable to most scientific evidence we use in society now but it's still better than nothing for trial and error and more generalised wisdom and learning.

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VioletKate99 t1_jdjo2br wrote

That is true, but the point of the post is that people don't make these kinds of arguments in real life. If I say "yesterday the bottom of the sky was red, and I know because my brother told me and I don't think he would lie to me". This sentence reflects real life more because you example is based on the absurdity of someone arguing a known universal truth, that creates the exact kind of toy sentence example that can then be easily discredited.

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XiphosAletheria t1_jdjbz03 wrote

>Just pointing out a fallacy is not enough, you also have to be able to show how that fallacy discredits the argument as it is used.

By definition the fallacy discredits the argument it was a part of. It does not, however, disprove the conclusion. If you say "the sky is blue because Joe Biden says so", I can point out that this is an argument from authority, and doing so immediately discredits your argument. The sky remains blue, however.

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EatThisShoe t1_jdj7q61 wrote

Just to be clear, there are experiments that show that quantum entanglement is not the result of a hidden variable. See this video for how those experiments work.

So there is evidence against hidden variables. And you are essentially arguing that this evidence is wrong or misinterpreted. The only deterministic interpretation of this is that entangled particles have faster than light communication, which as far as I know, does not have evidence supporting it.

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kompootor t1_jdj56bu wrote

I suppose you mean the OED and not the Oxford Dictionary of Philosophy, which is in front of me with a very different definition. I'm not sure which should be considered "official", but iirc Scrabble requires Collins.

It actually doesn't matter, because neither definition is relevant, because the only definition that matters is the one that's defined in the author's paper. The author uses this to set up their argument's scope. (Oh hey, that's Oxford's very next entry! Although they only talk about it in terms of logic.)

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BernardJOrtcutt OP t1_jdiy09i wrote

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kompootor t1_jdiq9q4 wrote

Which article are you quoting? I can't find the "excessive belief" definition in the article OP linked, nor in the Metaphilosophy paper.

Also, the second quote about "'excessive' scientism" -- are you quoting "a pretty extreme view"? If so, you are paraphrasing -- please do not use quotation marks unless it's a direct quotation.

I'm not sure I understand your comment. The author says he's addressing one specific argument in a specific paper, not scientism in general. Furthermore, it's a blog post, not a scientific proof, and not a prescription.

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